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Russell Brand allegations question from non American (www.theguardian.com)

submitted 1 year ago by El_Dorado to c/asklemmy@lemmy.ml

34 comments fedilink hide all child comments

I was reading about the allegations against Russell Brand and couldn't help but wonder how it works legally that his revenue can be blocked based on allegations and before any juridical ruling.

Don't get me wrong I don't know much about the guy and what he did or didn't do and agree that anyone should be punished according to their crimes.

But how is this possible with the principal of innocent until proven guilty? I'd be happy if someone could explain me.

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[–] shiveyarbles 20 points 1 year ago (2 children)

IDGAF this idiot is scamming people with his antivax, pro Russian bs he can eat a bag of dicks and take a dive into the sun.

[–] El_Rocha@lm.put.tf 3 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

Was he ever anti-vax?

All I know was that he said that the pharmaceutical companies created vaccines with research funded by the people's taxes and then kept the massive profits all for themselves... which is true.

[–] CeruleanRuin@lemmings.world 1 points 1 year ago

First they came for the dickbags, and I said nothing...