spireghost

joined 2 months ago
[–] spireghost@lemmy.zip 3 points 1 month ago

Big nothing burger

[–] spireghost@lemmy.zip 2 points 1 month ago

About half of rape allegations reported to police are already false

It seems like this number varies from 1% to 70% depending on what measurements you take. Rape is nearly impossible to prove or disprove, as the action usually happens in private and even if there's DNA evidence, you can just say it was consensual, so I'm not sure how you can get to the matter that any percent are true or false with any certainty.

Maybe the complainant said there was no rape after being intimidated, or deciding that the legal battle isn't worth it?

[–] spireghost@lemmy.zip 1 points 1 month ago (1 children)

Hmm, ok. Let me retry.

The digits of pi are not proven to be uniform or randomly distributed according to any pattern.

Pi could have a point where it stops having 9's at all.

If that's the case, it would not contain all sequences that contain the digit 9, and could not contain all sequences.

While we can't look at all the digits of Pi, we could consider that the uniform behavior of the digits in pi ends at some point, and wherever there would usually be a 9, the digit is instead a 1. This new number candidate for pi is infinite, doesn’t repeat and contains all the known properties of pi.

Therefore, it is possible that not any finite sequence of non-repeating numbers would appear somewhere in Pi.

[–] spireghost@lemmy.zip 3 points 1 month ago

It's amazing how easily he stretched a 20 year to 15 year age gap to Matt Gaetz, who is like 40 years old.

[–] spireghost@lemmy.zip 1 points 1 month ago (3 children)

Prove that said number isn't pi.

[–] spireghost@lemmy.zip 2 points 1 month ago* (last edited 1 month ago) (5 children)

OK, fine. Imagine that in pi after the quadrillionth digit, all 1s are replaced with 9. It still holds

[–] spireghost@lemmy.zip 3 points 1 month ago* (last edited 1 month ago)

The question is

Since pi is infinite and non-repeating, would it mean...

Then the answer is mathematically, no. If X is infinite and non-repeating it doesn't.

If a number is normal, infinite, and non-repeating, then yes.

To answer the real question "Does any finite sequence of non-repeating numbers appear somewhere in Pi?"

The answer depends on if Pi is normal or not, but not necessarily

[–] spireghost@lemmy.zip 6 points 1 month ago

Some of the most-played steam games are "Banana" and "Cats" where you literally click it every few hours and get steam item drops. Basically NFTs where people try to get rare items, but even more braindead because the developer, at any time can make more tokens.